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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 12:59

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why are we explaining today’s “climate change” as driven by human related “green house” gasses when natural “global warming” pushed sea level up to the “shores” of Topeka with no human contribution or even presence? Is Occam’s Rasor applied?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What are some hard truths that MAGA needs to hear?

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

How do I become an intelligent man?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.